Anyone who has studied NT Greek will have been taught English “glosses” to help them understand the different forms:
- Present: I am loosing/I loose
- Future: I will loose
- Aorist: I loosed
- Imperfect: I was loosing
- Perfect: I have loosed
- Pluperfect: I had loosed
The standard gloss for the perfect, “I have loosed” arises from the common understanding of the perfect as “past action with continuing consequences in the present”. But how accurate is that understanding of the perfect? What (if anything) is actually essential to the perfect form in every usage?
While I was in Rome for the recent SBL conference, I met Con Campbell, and attended his paper, “Breaking Perfect Rules: The Traditional Understanding of the Greek Perfect”. Con has argued in his books for a renewed understanding of the perfect, and this paper continued the theme, but came from a more illustrative perspective: He took the English Standard Version and examined how this English translation dealt with the perfect. He found that of 835 perfect indicatives in the Greek New Testament, 58% are NOT translated according to the traditional “rule” (that the perfect expresses a past action with present consequences). That’s a heck of a lot of exceptions!
So how does the ESV translate perfect indicatives? Of the 835, it translates 404 (i.e. 48%) as straight present, and 80 (almost 10%) as simple past, without any hint of ongoing consequences.
Of course, one of the most important developments in the study of New Testament Greek in the last few decades has been the recognition of the importance of verbal aspect. To simplify, this development involves the insight that the forms of the Greek verb mentioned above (present, aorist, imperfect, perfect, pluperfect) do not all ‘encode’ time. For example, the idea of ‘present time’ is not essential to the present form. The present form may be used in context to speak of present time or to speak of past time. But what is (arguably) essential to the verbal forms is the concept of aspect. Aspect may be of (at least) two types: Perfective aspect (which is like the bird’s eye view in Googlemaps – showing the big picture), or imperfective aspect (which is like the streetview in Googlemaps – moving along a street and seeing the details). The present form does not encode time, but it does (at least) encode imperfective aspect – the streetview, in which action is seen as it happens (whether in present or past time).
So back to the perfect form: How can we best understand it? Is there an ’aspect’ that is essential to the perfect form in every usage? In Con Campbell’s paper, he outlined three proposals: Perfective aspect, Stative aspect, and Imperfective aspect. He suggested that the latter two are worthy of consideration:
Porter has argued that ’stative aspect’ best describes what the perfect form expresses – we might gloss “I stand loosed” or “I am in the state of loosedness”. This does actually make good sense of the 48% of occurrences in which the ESV went for a straight present translation – “It is written” (“it stands written”/”it is in a state of writtenness”); “the door is shut” (“the door stands shut”/”the door is in a state of shutness”); “I am sure that neither death nor life…” (“I stand certain that neither death nor life…”/”I am in a state of certainty that neither death nor life…). But what of the perfect indicatives that the ESV translates as a simple past? “You sent to John” (John 5:33) is hard to imagine as a stative: “You are in a state of sent-to-John-ness”.
Campbell’s own view, as he has outlined elsewhere, is that ‘imperfective aspect’ best describes what the perfect form expresses. He notes that when the perfect form indicates past time, it is usually in the same situations that the present form is used for past time – in verbs of transference and in introducing discourse. Thus we might think of the perfect form as in some sense parallel to the present form – used to give a “streetview” perspective, often in present time, and sometimes in past time. So what is the difference between the present form and the perfect form? The perfect form is like a “heightened” present – thus perhaps we might gloss “I DO loose”.
I need to do more thinking about this, but I think it’s clear, as Campbell illustrated, that the “traditional view” of the perfect can no longer be thought of as the “rule”.